My previous post on this subject.
Matt Yglesias believes that the 59% Hispanic vote in Texas may be plausible.
However, his "debunking" of the conclusions reached in two of SteveSailer's articles (here's a link to the other one), as well as by others contains in my opinion one problem: he looks at only one of the arguments, given by the Houston Chronicle.
"But if Bush actually did claim almost 60 percent of the Latino vote statewide, his overall margin over Kerry in Texas should have been closer to 70 percent, not the final 61 percent to 38 percent, Gonzalez said."
and doesn't look at the intensive math that Mr. Sailer did in his second article.
More on this by Mr. Yglesias and by Charles Kuffner.
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